In 1836 the Provisional Government of Texas met at Washington on the Brazos, Texas, to delare Texas Independence and appointed General Sam Houston to wage war against the Mexican general Santa Anna. At the time, Texas was a state in Mexico, and the Provisional Government had no power to tax; nor the ability to carry out any decree. So was it really a government?
The Non-Aggression Principle is not an axiom, meaning that it doesn't completely define a moral principle by which people should interact with each other. It simply outlines a prohibition against aggression, which in it simplest form, prevents people from first interfering with the actions of others. From the Non-Aggression Principle, you can define a right to Liberty, but very little else. The Non-Aggression Principle says nothing about property; about contract law; about the limits to defense; nor about justice and retaliation. One man's justice could be another man's torture. There are numerous variances of Liberty which the Non-Aggression Principle does not address. Should there be limits on corporate liability? Never mind that the corporation is a product of the state. Is fractional reserve banking a fraud? Should intellectual property be protected? These are all things to which the Non-Aggression Principle does not speak.
I'm a randroid, in the sense that I've read everything that Ayn Rand wrote, (ironically, with the exception of the Fountainhead), and it became clear to me, so many years ago, that her vision of the state was a voluntary state, which did not tax, and which was organized to address the issues to which the non-aggression principle was silent. She believed that the state should be organized for defense, and as a means to put law under objective control. The law she was interested in putting under objective control was law which addressed these undefined issues. My question for you is, what's wrong with this? What's wrong with a voluntary organization, designed to address the nuances to which the non-aggression principle does not speak, which does not tax -- BUT -- which would have the authority of law in these specific areas, and would have a monopoly on the use of force SIMPLY by being the largest organization in a geographic area. If one gang, (or DRO), denied someone a fair trial, or an appeal, this organization would provide a court of appeal. If an invading army arrived, this organization would organize a defense. In the areas where the non-aggression principle is silent, this organization would define the law. IF this organization was voluntarily organized, did not tax, nor commit aggression, and was only concerned in those areas in which the non-aggression principle was silent, then wouldn't it be a part of an ancap state? It might still call itself a government; it might still have a 'state house', but if it didn't commit aggression, then wouldn't it have a legitimate role in a voluntary society?
Charles Johnson is a known anarchist writer. When I asked him how issues which are not addressed by the Non-Aggression Principle would be addressed by society, at the Liberty Forum last March, he suggested that local communities would get together to decide these types of issues? Isn't that the voluntary government I outline above???
http://www.youtube.com/user/blogofbile#p/u/21/VQZ4F-xHJnI
The key point is this: in an anarchist society, this type of organization would have complete legitimacy as defined by the Non-Aggression Principle. It would be a voluntary organization, and would be the link between anarchy as espoused by many of those here, and the 'objective' government as espoused by the Objectivists. It would also put a lot of people at ease who believe that the Canadians are going to swarm across the border to expand their empire.