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Latest post Tue, Dec 25 2007 8:38 PM by Stefan Molyneux. 50 replies.
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  • Thu, Dec 28 2006 1:55 PM In reply to

    • Nathan
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    Re: Proving Morality?

    impaler:
    I'll listen to that one, but in the meantime I have a question:
    Would you agree that not eating rocks for breakfast is universally preferred but it is not immoral to do so?

    I'll have to listen to it too I just burned the last 8, I'm a little behind with the new job and all. 

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  • Thu, Dec 28 2006 1:55 PM In reply to

    • impaler
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    Re: Proving Morality?

    Nathan:
    I'm not sure how you reached that conclusion, I will guess you mean that if something amoral like nutrition or language is also included as UPB that it can't be called morality or ethics because it is amoral?


    More like if you call morality UPB, and there are amoral UPBs (which you agreed) you are imposing a moral judgement to amoral preferences.
    Impaling the world!
  • Thu, Dec 28 2006 1:57 PM In reply to

    • Nathan
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    Re: Proving Morality?

    impaler:
    Nathan:
    I'm not sure how you reached that conclusion, I will guess you mean that if something amoral like nutrition or language is also included as UPB that it can't be called morality or ethics because it is amoral?


    More like if you call morality UPB, and there are amoral UPBs (which you agreed) you are imposing a moral judgement to amoral preferences.

    Hmm, you got me stumped on this one.  I'll get back to you after 567. 

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  • Fri, Dec 29 2006 1:33 PM In reply to

    Re: Proving Morality?

        I listened to Stefan’s thirty-third podcast, and was both pleased and slightly embarrassed to find my third point discussed further.  But my objection was not assuaged, and maybe it’s because I have yet to get to the appropriate podcast, or maybe it’s that I’m mischaracterizing Stefan’s point.  Let me give it a shot.  In biology, the definition of a horse is not truly concrete.  In other words, horses are not uniformly identical to anything, nor do they necessarily share any particular trait in common.  I really hate to keep bringing up Buddhism, but it reminds me of a famous argument in which a Buddhist monk was talking to a King about his royal chariot.  “If we remove one of the wheels and put a different one on, would it still be your chariot?”  To which the King responded that it would.  “If we switch the tongue, or the roof, or the axle, then would it still be your chariot?”  The King affirmed, and the discussion continued until the monk had convinced the king that there was in fact nothing about the chariot that identified it as itself.  We can apply the same argument to a horse, in that a horse with two heads, or an extra vertebra, or a hairless tail, could still be a horse (I’m not sure exactly when a biologist would declare it to be a new species).  This is only true because there’s nothing that concretely defines a horse.  And of course, this doesn’t mean that the concept of a horse is useless.  I agree with Stefan to that point. 

     

        But when he talks about the rules of human behavior, he claims that the justification for a moral principle is that all humans prefer it, but at the same time seems to assert that if not precisely all humans prefer it, that the rule can still be used.  To analogize, he appears to be saying that if all humans do not want to die, murdering is wrong.  He acknowledges that some human might want to die, and is not courageous enough to kill himself or even make it known that he prefers this.  However, this individual’s existence does not eliminate the usefulness of claiming that all humans prefer to live.  Accordingly, a murderer is always wrong in killing someone, because her victim would always prefer to live. 

     

        However, it appears that if we allow that her victim might want to die, then we have destroyed the universality of the principle.  The entire truth of the argument seems to be contingent on it being the case that the murderer has done something to her victim that no human would want.  Is Stefan’s point that even if some humans would prefer to be murdered, that it is still best to operate as if these individuals did not exist, and simply make the rule that murder is wrong?  This seems agreeable enough.  But if this is the case, would it be immoral to kill someone who wanted to be murdered?  I would argue that it is not, and I don’t think that Stefan would disagree. 

     

        If we argue that it is not immoral to kill someone who agrees that murdering them would be acceptable, what is the status of Stefan’s claims regarding soldiers?  Is it not the case that becoming a soldier serves as a declaration that murder is not immoral if one’s murderer comes from a different “team,” as he would do the same to them?  If we allow this, does that form the basis for an argument for contextual morals?  Does it not seem that what Stefan is arguing is based on preferences which do not arise from humanity itself?  If a soldier can prefer a rule that says, “I would prefer to kill members of the opposing “team” if and only if they have declared an identical preference,” then it does not seem that we can say that a soldier is committing an immoral act by murdering members of the opposing “team.”  Accordingly, the immorality of murder does not seem to reflect a universal human preference, because this would imply that soldiers would generally hold this preference.  It rather strikes me that the immorality of murder reflects the almost universally preferred behavior of the group of people to whom it applies: civilians.  Of course, it could be argued that soldiers would not prefer what they do if they knew something that civilians, or Stefan, knows.  But that’s a discussion for another day.

     

        The thirty third podcast also somewhat addresses my first point in its discussion of the example of a thief.  I agree with Stefan in saying that a thief could most definitely not argue that he has the right to steal, because, to bring up Nathaniel Branden’s stolen concept argument, the concept of theft presupposes the existence of property rights.  A thief’s argument could not be that his theft was justified, and that he also had the right to keep his stolen property.  What he could argue, however, is that there is no moral right which applies to property, and that his taking of someone else’s property was as allowable as it would be for someone to do the same to him.  In other words, to argue in favor of theft would be to speak gibberish, but to argue that taking is not theft would be consistent. 

     

        Stefan argues that someone would not take something if they did not assume that they would be able to use what they took for themselves.  In his example, a car thief would not bother to steal a car if she believed that someone could just take it away from her immediately.  But this is not necessarily the case.  It would be sufficient that she expect that she would likely be able to use the car, and that the chances of being stolen from herself were not too great.  To give a more accessible example, a hungry bread thieving pauper might be able to justify eating someone else’s bread by saying that no one should go hungry, and that if he had uneaten bread, he would not mind if someone ate it.  Clearly he would have to expect that between picking up the piece of bread, chewing it up, and digesting it, no one would steal the bread away from him.  But this does not seem like an unreasonable expectation to me.

     

        To address Nathan’s initial question: I’m obviously not saying that rape is the same as wearing a mismatching outfit, but rather I’m saying that Stefan’s argument is insufficient because it does not account for the differences in these things.

     

        To address his second post, in which he said, “By claiming the opponent is in error one automatically must be disagreeing and taking a position contrary to the opponent”:  I agree.  What I’m saying is that Stefan’s argument is, “(for all x) Ax,” and my argument need not be “~Ax.”  All I need to do is demonstrate that “(there exists x) Ax.”  Therefore, while I can not say, “I do not value truth, therefore you are wrong,” I can say, “It is not necessarily true that humans value truth, and there exist contrary examples, therefore you are wrong.”  But I have not listened to podcast 555 yet, so if my error is covered there, despite the subsequent statement by Impaler, then I apologize.

     

        Nathan’s fourth post claims that “Nutrition is UPB [universally preferred behavior]…”  I would agree if nutrition were simply an option on an order form that one could check or not check.  Of course the overwhelming majority of people want to be healthy.  But the fact is, many people who are fully informed about what would make them healthy still choose not to do those things.  This would suggest that nutrition is not universally preferred; its costs outweigh its benefits to a many people.

     

        Stefan’s later point that there can be no universally preferred, amoral behavior is critical, as he is defining morality as universally preferred behavior.  It appears that to reject this identification is to reject the entire system.

     

        I apologize for the fact that this post is approaching epic proportions.  I’ll try to be more concise in the future.  And I'll get to those other podcasts as quickly as possible.

  • Fri, Dec 29 2006 1:39 PM In reply to

    Re: Proving Morality?

    Excellent questions dude, just one clarification - I do not claim that a behavior is 'universally preferable' because 'all people prefer it'', since that would eliminate any possible moral system, since someone could always be found to disagree with it.

    Let me know if the newew podcasts help!

    Thanks, 

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  • Fri, Dec 29 2006 9:30 PM In reply to

    Re: Proving Morality?

    I listened to Stefan’s fifty fifth podcast, but didn’t find anything that would help clear up my objections to the eighth.  Moving onto the sixty seventh, I encountered a justification of property rights which I first heard from Hans-Hermann Hoppe (Triple H) in his book, The Economics and Ethics of Private Property.  If I followed correctly, property rights exist because all individuals must use objects exclusively to survive, and no system prohibiting the use of such objects could be assented to without contradiction by anyone who remains alive.  I like this sort of argument because it’s very neat and logical, and makes it possible to object really neatly and logically (of course I can’t just agree!).  It is clear that if the negation of property rights constituted a systemic prohibition of using objects in an exclusive fashion, then this argument would prove property rights quite well.  However, I don’t believe that this is the case.

     

    The inverse of property rights is a lack of recognition for the ability to exclude others from using objects which you have not used exclusively and to exhaustion.  It is not a necessary fact of existence that people must own the things they have not used, or are presently using, in order to survive.  It would technically be possible to survive without any exclusive possessions.  I hope I haven’t carried in a contradiction somewhere, but it seems that this argument does not prove property rights, but rather the right to use objects.

     

    Amusingly, later in the podcast, Stefan brings back the horse example and states that there are essential properties which define “horsedom,” including, incidentally, a long swishy tail for shooing away flies.  I laughed.  Unfortunately, I don’t think I agree with Stefan’s biology, though I’m no expert myself.  Horses do not share DNA exactly, because only identical twins do, and specific mutations to any particular gene would likely not result in a creature being classified as something different than a horse, regardless of whether its tail had no hair, or whatever.  But of course, neither of us are biologists.  So to avoid beating a dead horse (hardy har), I think it would be best to leave the argument of fixed essences aside, though Plato’s forms vs. Nagarjuna’s nisvabhava would be a battle for the centuries.

     

    Stefan then takes a stab at proving property rights in what seems to be an argument either directly taken from Triple H (or taken by him), or at least one which is remarkable in its similarity.  Obviously, I don’t agree with this either.  Is it becoming a theme that I must be dragged kicking and screaming into any objective moral structure?  It’s true; I staunchly believe that they do not exist, which is why I’m so fascinated by attempts to create them.  I hope that someday I’ll be proven wrong, but until that day, I’ll be doing my best to tear them down (as tactfully as possible, I hope!).

     

    Anyway, my objections start with the derivation of the right to self-ownership (interestingly enough, I e-mailed Hoppe about this when I read his book, and he never got back to me…so enjoy my repressed wrath, Stefan!).  The argument begins with the assertion that individuals control their actions.  In discussing this in the past, I have amended this argument to say that individuals necessarily control their own purposeful actions.  This avoids all the problems associated with mind control, or brain signal overrides, electric shocks, or plain old forcing someone to punch herself.  Because an individuals controls herself, and by extension her consciousness’ physical counterpart, her body, it is said that she owns herself.  

     

    But here’s what I don’t like: the way Stefan defines ownership lacks all of the bite of real property rights.  Because he defines action here as something which can not be forced, but rather only what can be controlled by the individual, it would appear that any outside force which imposes some non-purposeful action on an individual is not violating her ownership.  In other words, if one’s self-ownership is derived from simply observing the facts of her existence, then that ownership can not be violated.  If we say that forcing someone to punch herself is not actually forcing her to act, then we can not later say that one should not force her to punch herself, because of her self-ownership.  I hope I have not grossly misrepresented Stefan’s argument, but I do not see any way around this.

     

    Stefan next tackles the issue of owning the fruits of one’s labor.  But again, if we claim that as a fact of existence, one owns what one purposefully does, then we limit ourselves to descriptive discussion.  If a singer owns his voice, then that does not factually imply that he owns the rights to, let’s say, a recording made of his voice.  We must somehow show that it is unfair of someone to utilize the physical effects of another individual’s purposeful actions for their own use.  I don’t see how the argument presented in this podcast establishes this.

     

    The example of the orange exchange further complicates the issue.  Stefan says that the orange picker owns the oranges because he got them and no one is in the position to take them.  But this is not a fair characterization of property rights.  Property rights claim that even if there were an individual in a position to take the oranges, she ought not to.  Stefan’s claim that it would be nonsensical to say that the orange picker did not have the right to the product of his labor falls short in my eyes, because the actual product of the orange picker’s labor is the movement of a human body up a tree, and the subsequent relocation of some oranges, and the human, to the bottom of the tree.  At no point was anything else strictly created by the orange picker’s purposeful actions.  Accordingly, the orange picker “owns” his current position, and the oranges’, but we have not determined that he ought to be able to prohibit others from interfering, as we have still not yet made any evaluative statements, and we have derived the concept of ownership from the inviolable facts of human existence.

     

    It just seems to me that by deriving property rights from the facts of existence, we are unable to create rights which can be violated.  This strikes me as intuitive in a strictly logical sense.  If self-ownership is axiomatic, and property ownership is a direct logical conclusion of self-ownership, then any instance in which property ownership is violated represents a contradiction.  Do I have this all right?

     

    Turning to Stephan’s response to my last post: I’m afraid I don’t understand.  A universally preferred behavior is not a behavior which is preferred universally?  How on Earth can you derive morality from behaviors which do not produce likely outcomes which are not desirable to all people?  I listened to the eighth podcast again, but I wasn’t able to figure this out assuming that universally preferred behavior did not mean behavior which promoted universal human value.

     

    It appears that I have committed gross verbosity once again, and I again apologize.  Thanks for reading!

  • Sat, Dec 30 2006 5:54 AM In reply to

    Re: Proving Morality?

    Those are some excellent philosophical questions you have going on there dude, thanks so much for taking the time to post them!

    To start with the end, UPB is not a prescription, but a theory of morality. Any statement which posits that 'everyone should/should not do X' (steal, rape etc) has to be logically consistent, universal, reversible etc, just like any scientific theory. Any time UPB gets confusing, just try first substituting the 'scientific method' instead of morality, and that usually clears things up (for me, anyway).

    By far the greatest danger to mankind is not people who do not believe in morality (i.e. criminals, sadists, madmen etc), but people who dobelieve in illogical moral theories (muslims, christians, patriots, policemen, soldiers etc.) Governments murdered almost 300 million people in the 20th century alone - not even counting wars. Religious people have murdered almost a billion people throughout history...

    As for property rights, I agree with you that no rights or morals exist in reality, any more than numbers do. But mathematical theories, even though they describe concepts (unlike physics, which describes matter and energy) must still be logical and consistent. Thus any theory of property must be logical and consistent.

    If 'owning the effects of our actions' is unclear to you, would you accept that a man who murders another man is responsible for that murder?

    Let me know what you think! (I've never read Hoppe, but I hope we can at least keep up the conversation! Big Smile)

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  • Sat, Dec 30 2006 6:47 AM In reply to

    • GregG
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    Re: Proving Morality?

    Stefan Molyneux:
    If 'owning the effects of our actions' is unclear to you, would you accept that a man who murders another man is responsible for that murder?
    Would you say this hold true universally? For example, a man who murders, but only in the name of the state (soldier, cia, etc), is still responsible for the murders he commits, correct? Likewise, a man who steals or defrauds in the name of the state, would also also be responsible for his theft and his lies, right?

    Which gets us back to the problem of the chain of culpability in a situation of total coercion (as in a statist society). If everyone is forced to participate in order to survive, then at what point do we arbitrarily draw the line and say, "this is still wrong, but that is not" - e.g., purchasing a stolen television set off the back of a truck is wrong, but soliciting for government contracts is not (and, of course, continuing to work for a company that just landed a huge government contract, as in my own case - wouldn't that be equivalent to being the truck driver for the guy who stole all those TV sets?)

     

     

  • Sat, Dec 30 2006 7:10 AM In reply to

    Re: Proving Morality?

    Hey, no hijacking! Big Smile

    We don't use violence, and we work hard to oppose the ideology which justifies it. Withdrawing from society - required to avoid the state - only surrenders the world to predators.

    I don't take responsibility for the world I inherited. I don't take the blame for the power of the state. If I can use state resources to preach against the state, I will.

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  • Sat, Dec 30 2006 1:28 PM In reply to

    • impaler
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    Re: Proving Morality?

    impaler:

    Would you agree that not eating rocks for breakfast is universally preferred but it is not immoral to do so?
    Impaling the world!
  • Sat, Dec 30 2006 2:15 PM In reply to

    • Nathan
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    Re: Proving Morality?

    impaler:

    Would you agree that not eating rocks for breakfast is universally preferred but it is not immoral to do so?

    Yes.  Podcast 567 sort of explained the differences between morality and ethics and how UPB is sort of separate from all that but should be applied to all those things.  UPB applies to nutrition and you can pretty much substitute UPB with the scientific method. 

    For instance you're free to not apply the scientific method  to a question but then the whole chicken entrails thing might not result in a correct answer about the question you're asking.  It would not be immoral but it would certainly not result in truth.

    So I suppose the next question that really stumps me is can we then still define morality as universally preferred behavior or should we now say that morality should be applied to universally preferred behavior? 

    The only answer I can see coming out of that is that nutrition could be defined as universally preferred behavior too when it comes to eating.  In the same way that morality could be defined as universally preferred behavior when it comes to things like don't steal, don't kill, don't rape and stuff like that. 

    Ethics can be defined as universally preferred behavior when it comes to how to treat patients, customers or your children or even someone elses children or other people or animals.  Manners could be defined as UPB in much the same way when it comes to not chewing with your mouth open, etc. 

    Does that all make sense? 

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  • Tue, Jan 2 2007 8:38 PM In reply to

    • impaler
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    • Posts 39

    Re: Proving Morality?

    Nathan:
    So I suppose the next question that really stumps me is can we then still define morality as universally preferred behavior or should we now say that morality should be applied to universally preferred behavior?

    That's exactly my point
    I think UPB is not a good definition of morality, morality is a subset of UPB.

    Nathan:

    The only answer I can see coming out of that is that nutrition could be defined as universally preferred behavior too when it comes to eating.  In the same way that morality could be defined as universally preferred behavior when it comes to things like don't steal, don't kill, don't rape and stuff like that. 

    Ethics can be defined as universally preferred behavior when it comes to how to treat patients, customers or your children or even someone elses children or other people or animals.  Manners could be defined as UPB in much the same way when it comes to not chewing with your mouth open, etc.

    Does that all make sense?


    Of course, and I agree.
     

    Impaling the world!
  • Tue, Jan 2 2007 9:29 PM In reply to

    • Dominick
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    Re: Proving Morality?

    Stefan Molyneux:

    Hey, no hijacking! Big Smile

    We don't use violence, and we work hard to oppose the ideology which justifies it. Withdrawing from society - required to avoid the state - only surrenders the world to predators.

    I don't take responsibility for the world I inherited. I don't take the blame for the power of the state. If I can use state resources to preach against the state, I will.

    Does this also hold for military personnel?

    dominick 

    "The only idea they have ever manifested as to what is a government of consent, is this– that it is one to which everybody must consent, or be shot." - Lysander Spooner
  • Thu, Jan 4 2007 9:02 PM In reply to

    Re: Proving Morality?

    So I listened to the 116th podcast, and though we could have a long, engaging debate about it, in the interest of sticking to the topic, I’ll refrain from addressing it. Accordingly, I’ll move onto the 148th podcast, which is clearly more applicable to the discussion at hand. I was following the discussion quite well until Stefan got to the point where he said that if there is preferred behavior, then it must be common to all mankind. My reaction was much the same as it has been throughout this conversation: “Wait, why? What? What the hell is he talking about?!”

     

    This leads me to conclude that I still have no idea what Stefan means by preferred behavior. If I act, then I must prefer the expected goal of my action to the state which I expect to result from non-intervention. Von Mises takes me to that point, and I’m still on the horse (can I throw a horse reference into every post?). But the step by which my preference becomes representative of what humans prefer escapes me. It’s clear to me that Stefan does not intend to argue that any preference is a moral preference, and so it must be that there exists at least one preference which is immoral. But then how can morality be derived from preferences? Is it simply a matter of a “most people prefer X, therefore, it is immoral to violate X” sort of thing? After that, I was able to brush myself off and enjoy the rest of the podcast with little objection (the slight towards Buddhism was unfair).

     

    But what’s the deal with this preferred behavior thing? I tried saying “scientific method” instead of “morality,” but it didn’t help. I mean, I’m in agreement with Stefan’s statements about what characteristics a theory of morality would have, but I think that implicitly, “non-arbitrariness” is something he’s endeavoring towards as well. And if morality is to be derived from something, and it seems like this something is “universally preferred behavior,” it strikes me as obviously essential that I understand what UPB is and how it correlates with morality.

     

    I am in agreement with Stefan’s point that a murderer is responsible for his own actions, assuming that by “responsible,” nothing more is meant than that the murderer chose to do what he did. However, this still doesn’t prove any particular theory of morality. A perfectly rational, consistent, and universal argument could hold that the pressure of the society in which I was brought up, along with my own ingenuity, resulted in a vague and undefined theory of morality which manifests itself as reactions to the actions of individuals, and all individuals operate in the same way. If I, for whatever reason, hold a different moral leaning than someone else, and the substance of our disagreement is based not on an inconsistency in one of our moral theories, but on a differing evaluation of some object, it is unclear to me why one of us is wrong and the other right.

     

    Let’s say one person believes that people should be allowed to have things which they call their property if and only if the property object was altered in some significant sense from its natural condition. However, she would hold that someone’s property was not off limits to others except when the owner wanted to use it, and society would be better off if we didn’t have yards and fences and boundaries. Let’s say that there’s another person who thinks that people should be allowed to claim spaces, objects, and the like for themselves, and should be allowed to exclude others from their property “just because.” If the second person fences off her property and says, “Alright, now you stay on your side of the fence, and I’ll stay on mine,” the other person’s system of rights could consistently say, “That’s absurd! You’re not actually using that property all the time, so there’s no reason I can’t use it too! You can use my stuff if you want. Here, I’ll even let you kick me off anytime you want, but at least take down that fence!”

     

    Let’s say a third person comes along and says that claims on property should be limited only to what someone is using at the moment (or visibly preparing to use), because otherwise people get too caught up in material stuff. This person’s perfectly contented to live as a hunter/gatherer, and will gladly share with anyone who wants what he has, assuming that they would do the same for him. I don’t think that any of these positions are inconsistent. They would result in very different societies, which would be desirable to certain people. I don’t see how one can be “wrong” and another “right,” as long as it’s not logically inconsistent.

     

    I just don’t think this whole rights thing can be proven logically. It strikes me as a cultural tradition which everyone accepts because that’s the way things run smoothly. It gives people a benchmark by which to judge their actions in a world where evaluations are often complicated, and conclusions about fairness are often murky. I hope Stefan’s right, and I’m wrong, but I don’t see what my mistake is.

     

    Oh, and as for Hoppe, you can check out the argument I’m referring to in this short essay.

  • Thu, Jan 4 2007 9:16 PM In reply to

    • Nathan
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    Re: Proving Morality?

    My reaction was much the same as it has been throughout this conversation: “Wait, why? What? What the hell is he talking about?!”

    Well, for the same reason good nutrition applies to everyone.  If you comb back through these posts I think I mentioned this and illustrated this with the Nathaniel Branden quote about the operation of an automobile.

    You may know people who do not follow universally preferred behavior such as a man who eats fast food every day, but he cannot avoid the consequences of not following universally preferred behavior - that he will become fat and unhealthy.

    It must apply to all people at all times or otherwise it is mere personal preference like, "I like jazz." or "I like purple." 

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